Right of Body
This post by confused reminded me of Friday
A detailed writing on the subject is postponed for a later time.
I do wonder however that given,
1) Sexual gratification is no more different than day to day activities. Further it can be traded like any economic good.
2) The social taboos to sex either do not exist or are minimal.
By what order (if at all) should a sexual offense (i.e. molestation) be considered more heinous than a non-sexual one (i.e. beating the shit out of someone).
PS. For some reasons, nowadays most of my posts refer to confused, this ought to change
PPS. Due to condition 2 this is not a real-case scenario. Also my post on Robert Heinlein is pending
7 comments:
Clearly it depends on how emotionally ( rather than just physically ) traumatic the world considers such an act to be. And atleast among the countries of the world today the perceived amount emotional torture doesn't seem to decrease with commercialization of sex or the weakening of taboos.
But is it correct ??
Regards
We can act only based on our perceptions! These perceptions seem to imply that there is some emotional suffering irrespective of what society does/thinks. But may be the perceived amount of suffering is what perpetuates the suffering. We suffer when we think we suffer!!
Frog,
But perceptions of suffering (wrt. sexual transgression) are themselves shaped by social conditioning.
That is why my second condtion was absence of taboos
Regards
Ah!
Our patronage is now being withdrawn.
''Sadness''
My point is that there seems to be some social conditioning apart from taboos.
Confused,
No do not fear :-)
Frog,
When I said social taboos, it was meant to include social condition also, wrong choice of words I guess
Regards
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